p327 [To the same.] [From the French.] * * * The objection made to the use of 1 Corinthians 7:14 has no force. Among the Jews, if one married a Gentile, or vice versa, the Jew was not profane, but he had profaned himself; the children were profane, and the Jew had to send away both wife and children. The husband did not cease to be a Jew, though profaned, but his children were profane, and therefore they could not even be profaned, for that which is already profane cannot be made so.

Now, grace being come, it was the reverse which took place. The unbelieving husband did not cease to be an unbeliever, but he was relatively sanctified (not holy); then the child was holy, not inwardly in its soul, but it had right to the privileges which belonged to the people of God on earth, privileges from which the child of a mixed marriage among the Jews was debarred, because he was profane. He was no more a sinner than any other, but he was excluded from the circle in which were found the blessings accorded by God to His people, and they were great as the apostle says. …

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